Shortest diary of my time here, which I may unpublish pretty quickly.
I'm just curious if anybody has the answer to a question.
As we know, the Republicans have been extremely organized all across the country in trying to suppress votes from minorities and poor people. They have been incredibly successful. At the same time, they claim these efforts are necessary in order to suppress "voter fraud," which almost never actually happens.
Does anybody have the numbers? What is the best evidence on the ratio of votes suppressed to votes cast fraudulently?
I suspect the ratio is something like 50,000 to 1.
If that's true (and certainly it's something like that), I'm sorry the president and other Democrats have not been screaming to high heaven about it.